Ask Your Preacher - Archives

Ask Your Preacher - Archives

NEW TESTAMENT

Displaying 141 - 145 of 458

Page 1 2 3 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 90 91 92


Picky Eater

Thursday, September 29, 2016
Are any foods prohibited from consumption by the New Testament?  I once visited a church where the members were debating whether eating rare beef was prohibited because of the presence of blood.  Is this splitting hairs?  Is it merely cultural that we do not eat certain animals such as horses, or is there Biblical basis in this?  I believe I'm recalling Old Testament Law which specified eating only animals with "cloven hooves"?

Sincerely,
Nom Nom Nom

Dear Nom Nom Nom,

The Old Testament laws concerning what could and could not be eaten can be found in Lev. 11, but there is only one type of food that christians cannot eat – blood (Acts 15:29).  When an animal is killed, some cultures will strangle the animal so as to keep the blood in the meat, as opposed to draining the blood out.  It is probably a misunderstanding on what it means to eat the meat with the blood that caused the discussion that you mentioned over rare beef.  Things like blood sausage, blood soup, blood stew, etc. are popular dishes in some countries, but eating them is wrong.  All meat is clean for New Testament christians (Mk 7:19), but blood is not.

That Figures

Wednesday, September 21, 2016
I have a friend who speaks about the Bible having figurative language in it.  How would you respond to this comment?

Sincerely,
Mr. Metaphor

Dear Mr. Metaphor,

The Bible does use figurative language, but so do you.  Every time you say, “I’m dead on my feet”, “That guy really missed the boat”, or “I’m as happy as a lark” – you are using figurative language.  Figurative language is a normal part of human conversation.  The Bible uses it just like you do.  The important thing to remember is that speech can only be considered figurative in certain circumstances.

  1. If the writer or speaker specifically tells you that the language is figurative.  For example, Rev 1:1 says that the things in the book are ‘signified’, a word in Greek that means ‘symbolized’.
  2. Context demands that it be considered figurative… like when Jesus says that we are “the salt of the earth” (Matt 5:13).  It wouldn’t make sense if He were trying to say that people are literally made of salt.

Bible writings should be considered literal unless there is a reason to believe otherwise – just like normal writings.  There is nothing wrong with saying the Bible uses figurative language; it is just important that we don’t assume something is figurative.  Always assume literal unless proven otherwise.

End Of Time

Wednesday, September 14, 2016
I have been reading about the end times.  It seems that we are very close (from what I have heard and read myself).  It seems that a lot of churches talk a lot about the end times from what I can see.  Do you think that we are close to the end?  Also, what signs in the Bible, if any, have not happened yet?  I am just scared that we are close to the end; of course, it could end before I even finish writing the question, so we all need to be ready for it, just wanting your opinion on the subject; thanks!

Sincerely,
Looking Ahead

Dear Looking Ahead,

Many verses that people use to discuss the end of time are used out of context.  It might surprise you to know that most of the book of Revelation has nothing to do with the end of the world (even John, the writer of the book, said that the book of Revelation was full of things shortly to come to pass – Rev 1:1).  So be careful in taking too much stock in what you read on the internet (which is ironic, since this is a website!) or hear through other people.  What matters is what the verses say, not what people think or assume.  Most stuff you read is merely conjecture.  2 Thess 2:1-2 specifically warns us about getting too caught up in worrying about when the end will come.

The clearest passages we have on the topic of the end of the world are 1 Thess 5:1-10, 2 Pet 3:3-12, and 1 Cor 15:50-58.  All three of these passages clearly outline what needs to be known about the end of the world.

First, it will come like a thief, and no one will be ready for it (1 Thess 5:2, 2 Pet 3:10).  If the day will only come when no one is expecting it, it only makes sense to not worry about trying to pinpoint that day since God says it is impossible!

Second, we should live every day like it will be our last (1 Cor 15:58, 2 Pet 3:11-12, 1 Thess 5:8-9).  If you are always living a holy and faithful life, it won’t matter when Christ returns – a point which you made in your question.  Live faithfully, and whether you live or die, you will be ready to meet your Lord (1 Thess 5:10).

The Real Cost Of Sin

Tuesday, September 13, 2016
You wrote in “Which Way Did He Go?” that when Jesus died, He went to Paradise.  If that's the case, how does the act of atonement for our sins work?  And why would Jesus Himself claim that the Father forsook Him?

Sincerely,
Checking His Itinerary

Dear Checking His Itinerary,

Jesus atoned for our sins by paying for them with the blood of Deity.  It is a common misconception that Jesus paid for our sins by spending three days in hell on our behalf, but that isn’t what the Scriptures say on the topic.  There are two ways to pay for our sins.  We can pay for our own sins by spending eternity in hell (Rom 6:23), or God can pay for our sins through His blood (Matt 26:28).  In the Old Testament, God taught Israel that all sin had to be paid for with blood.  He taught them this through the animal sacrifice system, but the blood of animals only taught them about how sin is paid for… animal blood was never sufficient to actually pay the price for human sin (Heb 10:4).  Ultimately, it was God’s blood that had the power to remove sins (Rev 1:5).

As for Jesus’ statement that the Father forsook Him (Matt 27:46), those words were uttered by Jesus as He hung upon the cross.  Jesus wasn’t making an all-encompassing statement about the Father forsaking Him forever.  Jesus was simply crying over the agony of being left alone to suffer for the sins of mankind.  It is a statement of suffering, not of literal abandonment by the Father.  Jesus even said that the Father wouldn’t leave Him (Jhn 16:32).

The Rest Of The Story

Monday, September 12, 2016
Did Jesus modify the Old Law, the Ten Commandments, and the Torah when He said, "I have come to fulfill the law {the ten commandments}"?

Sincerely,
Pending Change

Dear Pending Change,

Jesus didn't modify/change the Old Testament - He fulfilled it (Matt 5:17).  Jesus' life, death, and resurrection are the fulfillment of everything of which the prophets of old spoke (1 Pet 1:10-12, Acts 3:20-21).  Moses said that there would come a day when a Messiah would come... and that when He came, the Jews were to follow Christ instead (Acts 3:22-24).  Jesus fulfilled the Old Testament by being the Messiah and paying the price for mankind's sins.  The Old Testament was a tutor to lead us to Christ (Gal 3:24), but now that Christ is here, He has fulfilled the law, and we are no longer bound by its laws (Gal 3:25).

Displaying 141 - 145 of 458

Page 1 2 3 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 90 91 92