Ask Your Preacher

Ask Your Preacher

OLD TESTAMENT

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Homonym, Not Synonym

Tuesday, September 03, 2019
     Explain please why in Malachi chapter 4 it refers to the ‘Sun’ of righteousness and not the ‘Son’ of righteousness as the New Testament claims.  Thank you.

Sincerely,
Wordy

Dear Wordy,

Mal 4:2 is using poetic and figurative language to describe what life will be like for christians.  “The sun of righteousness will arise with healing in its wings” isn’t meant to be read literally.  The sun doesn’t have anything to do with morality, and the sun also doesn’t have wings.  The language is metaphorical and should be treated just like we use metaphorical language today.  Malachi 4:2 is saying that when Christ comes, His people will be blessed with warmth to the soul like the sun provides warmth to the body; they will be blessed with liberty like wings are to a bird, and they will have the healing that forgiveness brings the soul.

Jewish Gentiles?

Tuesday, August 27, 2019
     The other day, I asked myself, “Was a Gentile in Moses’ day able to become one of God’s people?”  I was (for some reason) told the opposite.

Sincerely,
A Change In Mind

Dear A Change In Mind,

People were able to convert to Judaism if they wanted to.  Ex 12:48 specifically says that if a man wanted to participate in the holy offerings of the Jewish nation and eat the Passover, he could be circumcised.  When he did that, he would become “as one born in the land”.  God did allow for people to convert to Judaism.  Probably the most famous convert to Judaism was Ruth.  Ruth was originally from the nation of Moab (Ruth 1:4), but eventually, she converted and chose to serve Jehovah (Ruth 1:16).

More Than Half Full

Thursday, August 15, 2019
Why does 1 kings 7:26 say, “And it was a hand-breadth thick, and the brim thereof was wrought like the brim of a cup with flowers of lilies: it contained TWO thousand baths.”

And 2 Chronicles 4:5 says, “And the thickness of it was a hand-breadth, and the brim of it like the work of the brim of a cup with flowers of lilies, and it received and held THREE thousand baths.”

Why would one say two thousand baths and one say three thousand baths? You wouldn't think it's a contradiction, would you?

Sincerely,
Grasping For Gallons

Dear Grasping For Gallons,

1 Kgs 7:26 and 2 Chr 4:5 are talking about the actual contents of the sea of bronze and the maximum content for the sea of bronze.

1 Kings 7:26 tells us that the molten sea contained 2,000 baths of water while the 2 Chronicles passage tells us that it could receive and hold 3,000 baths.  2 Chr 4:5 adds another word to the passage that is the word you would use for something’s maximum capacity.  Therefore, 1 Kgs 7:26 is simply saying that the sea normally held 2,000 baths of water, and 2 Chr 4:5 tells us that it was capable of holding 3,000 baths – the thing was only filled to two-thirds capacity.  It is like saying my coffee cup holds 16 ounces of coffee, but I only fill it to 10 ounces because that’s all I want to drink.  No contradiction; just two different details about an amazing structure.

Breakin' The Law

Thursday, August 01, 2019
      Why is there a New Testament if God never changes?

Sincerely,
Traditionalist

Dear Traditionalist,

God never changes, but humans do, and mankind wasn’t ready for Christ’s law in the beginning.  Gal 3:24 says that the Old Testament law was a tutor to lead people to Christ.  Just like beginning arithmetic must be taught before you dive into calculus, the Old Law prepared people for a greater and more perfect law.  The Old Testament taught people about sin (Rom 3:20), and it showed that all mankind had sinned and fallen short of God’s glory (Rom 3:23).  The Old Testament law was added because of sin and as a preparation for Jesus’ entrance into the world (Gal 3:19).  The Old Law could never save people because all a law can do is condemn the law-breaker – only the gift of Christ’s blood can provide forgiveness for the sinner (Gal 3:13).  The New Testament combines God’s laws with a plan to provide forgiveness for those who break those laws.

War Of Words

Wednesday, July 24, 2019
     Does the exact Hebrew translation say in the Ten Commandments, “Thou shalt not kill”?  Or does it say something along the lines of “Thou shall not murder”?  Obviously, Moses was a great military leader (along with Joshua, David, Gideon, etc.).  I'm a soldier, and I get asked this question.  I don't know how to answer it.

Sincerely,
On The Defense

Dear On The Defense,

The Hebrew word used for ‘kill’ in the Ten Commandments literally means ‘murder’.  There is a difference between killing someone in self-defense and pre-meditated, intentional murder of another human being.  The Bible has plenty of examples of faithful people going to war (David killed Goliath in battle – 1 Sam 17:49-50).  The Bible is also full of examples of capital punishment for certain crimes (Num 15:35).  Num 35:15-16 makes a distinction between accidentally killing someone and premeditated murder.  A police officer may have to kill someone while serving the community, but that isn’t murder.  The same is true with a soldier.

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